LITERAL VS. SPIRITUAL "RAPTURE"
DOES THE LITERAL RAPTURE THEORY CONTAIN GNOSTIC ELEMENTS?
By: Mark Chiacchira
DOES THE LITERAL RAPTURE THEORY CONTAIN GNOSTIC ELEMENTS?
By: Mark Chiacchira
Over the years, and my own study, I have seen the Bible's message from beginning to end as being covenantal. It is to be seen as one consistent message from beginning to end. The Bible does not present it as both. It was a spiritual problem in the beginning, and a spiritual restoration at the end. It's never been about the physical. This is why when they were told to "put off the flesh" by the apostle, they didn't start getting out the knives!;-) He is speaking of carnal thinking.
A literal "rapture" is inconsistent with Paul's overall message. Paul defines the "body" in Romans 4, 5 and 6 as well as 1 Corinthians 5,6 and 7. It is my contention that he is only reiterating these same thoughts when speaking to the Colossians, Thessalonians, or the Corinthians (these passages are primarily used to prove this "literal rapture"). There is no changing of subject. Paul does not redefine the "body" and then make it go from literal to spiritual in the "physical change" sense within these passages.
Isn't 1 Corinthians 12 carried over naturally in 1 Corinthians 15? It's not a shift in topics. It's the same thing!
I believe that dispensational theology inherently teaches a view of cosmological (physical) corruption, that is very similar to the way Gnostics viewed the physical cosmos. Dispensational theology teaches that due to Adam's sin, the physical world was somehow physically changed and is now corrupt or fallen (bad). This results in seeing physical flesh, death, pain, and suffering, as "bad", and needing a change from this physical to spiritual body (or escape from the bad) in order to be freed from this corrupt fallen state. It is my conviction that the scriptures do not teach this cosmological or physical change that both views are teaching. I believe the scriptures to be teaching a covenantal change only. It is a heart, or spiritual change in man that needed fixing. It's not both the material as well as the spiritual that needs changing!
Dispensational futurists, like those at Answers In Genesis Ministries, teach this same concept (i.e. before "the fall", bees had no stingers, mosquitoes did not bite etc.) This "physical fallen" view is a direct result of their dispensational theology. I see this material or physical "rapture" view essentially as being the same in this preterist view of a literal physical and bodily change. Only the timing is different between the views.
The dispensational futurist claims that this physical (or bodily) change takes place at the coming of the Lord in the future. The "preterist" physical (or bodily) rapture view, sees this same change occurring in the first century (at the coming of the Lord) rather than in our future. In both the dispensational, and preterist "rapture" views, the physical bodies of those living at the coming of the Lord are changed into spiritual ones and then taken to heaven. The fallen (i.e corrupt bodies...bad) are changed into spiritual bodies (non-corrupt...good). Is this not essentially the same thing that the Gnostics believed and taught?
The Gnostics taught that the physical universe was bad, and that the spiritual was good. They desired an escape from the physical because of it's inherent state. This is why people like N.T. Wright (Anglican Bishop), the Catholic Church, and others, call the Left Behind theology "psudo-Gnostic", and an "escape from reality". They understand and see the similarities between Gnostisism and dispensational futurism. This doesn't mean that I agree with everything N.T. Wright or the Catholic Church believe, it's just that they are seeing the same things I am seeing when it comes to this doctrine of a material or bodily "rapture". Whether it's labeled preterist or futurist, it's still a physical change going from corrupt and fallen (bad), to the spiritual (good).
Man was driven from the presence of God and Jesus brought us back in. Jesus accomplished all of this at His Parousia in A.D. 70. Praise God! He used physical object lessons to show us these spiritual truths. If the physical was to be restored at His coming in the first century (essentially undoing what Adam did), then I need to be shown from the scriptures how this physical world and it's components changed. If physical bodies are that one exception to the rule, then I am smelling something, and it ain't good.;-)
At least the dispensational futurist is consistent. He stresses a physical fall at the beginning (Genesis) and a physical restoration at the end (Revelation). They have a fallen or corrupt physical "Heaven's and Earth" in the beginning, and a new physical "Heaven's and Earth" at the end (Bright shiny new planet). This is also why they need a physical body change in a "rapture". This, in my opinion, is what makes them so successful. They have a theology that is consistent from beginning to end! Shouldn't the preterist be just as consistent? Shouldn't we have a spiritual problem at the beginning and a spiritual restoration at the end? Isn't this what Jesus taught? Is it really in part a physical problem? I hope my reasoning is understood as being sound here.
The silence argument that Ed Stevens uses isn't cutting it for me.
This is an illustration I use from Matthew.
1 “For the kingdom of heaven is like a landowner who went out early in the morning to hire laborers for his vineyard. 2 Now when he had agreed with the laborers for a denarius a day, he sent them into his vineyard. 3 And he went out about the third hour and saw others standing idle in the marketplace, 4 and said to them, ‘You also go into the vineyard, and whatever is right I will give you.’ So they went. 5 Again he went out about the sixth and the ninth hour, and did likewise. 6 And about the eleventh hour he went out and found others standing idle, and said to them, ‘Why have you been standing here idle all day?’ 7 They said to him, ‘Because no one hired us.’ He said to them, ‘You also go into the vineyard, and whatever is right you will receive.’ 8 “So when evening had come, the owner of the vineyard said to his steward, ‘Call the laborers and give them their wages, beginning with the last to the first.’ 9 And when those came who were hired about the eleventh hour, they each received a denarius. 10 But when the first came, they supposed that they would receive more; and they likewise received each a denarius. 11 And when they had received it, they complained against the landowner, 12 saying, ‘These last men have worked only one hour, and you made them equal to us who have borne the burden and the heat of the day.’ 13 But he answered one of them and said, ‘Friend, I am doing you no wrong. Did you not agree with me for a denarius? 14 Take what is yours and go your way. I wish to give to this last man the same as to you.
This parable is about the Jews working under the Law for over 1500 years. They agreed to this in order to obtain their "pay" (salvation). Then, at the end of the day (end of ages), comes the Gentile and he gets the same pay (salvation). Then, the laborers (i.e. Jews) complain that they worked harder and longer than the Gentiles. Jesus then demonstrates His mercy and grace by giving those that came along at the end, the same pay that those who labored longer.
Do we today receive the same pay that those in the first century received? Is our "pay" the same? It's my contention that It's exactly the same! If they got new "spiritual bodies" at the end of the day (A.D. 70) and I have not, then was I somehow cheated, and the promises made only for them in the first century? In reality the payment is salvation and we have it all. We now have eternal life in Him.
It is my conviction that the pay we received, was the redeeming of our souls (not spiritual bodies) at the coming of the Lord.
As much as I love the man, Ed Steven's view seems very forced to me. He forces a literal and physical hermeneutic upon the text when none is called for.
